NEET SS 25 Surgery Recall

GI Surgery Onco Surgery Endocrinology Urology CTVS Neurosurgery

GI Surgery – NEET SS 2025

High-resolution manometry shows elevated integrated relaxation pressure (IRP) with normal esophageal peristalsis. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Achalasia type I
B. Achalasia type II
C. Achalasia type III
D. Esophagogastric junction outflow obstruction (EGJOO)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
EGJOO is defined by impaired LES relaxation with preserved peristalsis. Achalasia always shows absent or abnormal peristalsis.

Teaching Points:
• Elevated IRP + normal peristalsis = EGJOO
• Exclude mechanical obstruction

Massive duodenal ulcer bleed with hemodynamic instability despite failed endoscopic hemostasis. Next step?
A. Repeat endoscopy
B. CT angiography
C. Emergency surgery
D. PPI alone

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Ongoing shock with failed endoscopic control mandates urgent surgical hemostasis.

Teaching Points:
• Unstable + failed endoscopy = surgery
• Posterior DU → gastroduodenal artery

Severe epigastric pain, retching, inability to pass NG tube with air–fluid level on X-ray suggests?
A. Acute gastric dilatation
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Acute gastric volvulus
D. Boerhaave syndrome

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Borchardt’s triad is classic for acute gastric volvulus.

Teaching Points:
• Borchardt triad = volvulus
• Surgical emergency

Which statement about organoaxial gastric volvulus is true?
A. Less common
B. Common in children
C. Associated with paraesophageal hernia
D. Rarely acute

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Organoaxial is the most common type and is associated with paraesophageal hernia.

Teaching Points:
• Long-axis rotation
• Often acute in adults

Child <5 years with abdominal mass and very high AFP. Diagnosis?
A. HCC
B. Hepatoblastoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Hamartoma

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Hepatoblastoma is the most common malignant liver tumor in young children and AFP is elevated in >90%.

Teaching Points:
• High AFP + child = hepatoblastoma
• Treat with chemo + surgery

Primary blood supply of gastric conduit during esophageal reconstruction?
A. Left gastric
B. Right gastric
C. Right gastroepiploic
D. Short gastrics

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The right gastroepiploic artery is preserved as the sole blood supply of the gastric conduit.

Teaching Points:
• Essential to prevent anastomotic leak

During a standard anatomical liver resection (e.g., right hepatectomy), what is the correct sequence of operative steps?
A. Liver mobilization → Control of hepatic inflow → Parenchymal transection → Control of hepatic outflow → Specimen removal
B. Control of hepatic inflow → Liver mobilization → Parenchymal transection → Control of hepatic outflow → Specimen removal
C. Liver mobilization → Control of hepatic inflow → Control of hepatic outflow → Parenchymal transection → Specimen removal
D. Liver mobilization → Parenchymal transection → Control of inflow → Control of outflow → Specimen removal

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The classical sequence in anatomical liver resection minimizes bleeding and allows safe vascular control. First, the liver is mobilized by dividing the falciform, coronary, and triangular ligaments. Next, hepatic inflow (hepatic artery and portal vein branches) is controlled. Parenchymal transection is then performed along the resection plane. The hepatic veins draining the resected portion are divided near the IVC (outflow control), and finally the specimen is removed.

Teaching Points:
• Inflow control precedes parenchymal transection
• Hepatic vein (outflow) division is done toward the end
• Sequence reduces bleeding during hepatectomy

Painless progressive jaundice with palpable gallbladder suggests?
A. CBD stone
B. Carcinoma head of pancreas
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. GB cancer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Courvoisier’s sign indicates malignant obstruction of distal CBD.

Teaching Points:
• Painless jaundice + palpable GB = malignancy

Submucosal esophageal mass with smooth mucosa and hypoechoic lesion from muscularis propria?
A. Carcinoma
B. GIST
C. Leiomyoma
D. Varix

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Leiomyoma is the most common benign esophageal tumor.

Teaching Points:
• Smooth mucosa differentiates from carcinoma

A patient with carcinoma of the gallbladder is incidentally detected after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Histopathology shows tumor invasion limited to the lamina propria. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Radical cholecystectomy with segment IVb/V liver resection
B. Re-exploration with lymphadenectomy
C. Observation only
D. Port site excision with liver wedge resection

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Tumor invasion limited to the lamina propria corresponds to T1a gallbladder carcinoma.

Key points:
• T1a tumors are confined to the lamina propria of the gallbladder wall
• Simple cholecystectomy is considered curative
• No additional liver resection or lymphadenectomy is required
• Five-year survival exceeds 95–100%

In contrast:
• T1b (muscular layer invasion) → requires radical cholecystectomy with segment IVb/V liver resection and lymphadenectomy due to higher lymphatic spread

Teaching Points:
• The lamina propria of the gallbladder has minimal lymphatic channels
• This explains the very low risk of nodal metastasis in T1a carcinoma
• Therefore simple cholecystectomy is adequate treatment

Urology – NEET SS 2025

During laparoscopic hysterectomy, a partial transection of the lower ureter is recognized intra-operatively. The patient is stable and the ureter is viable. Best immediate management?
A. Immediate nephrectomy
B. Primary ureteroureterostomy
C. Placement of double-J stent and repair
D. Delayed repair after 6 weeks

Correct Answer: C. Placement of double-J stent and repair

Explanation:
When a partial ureteric injury is recognized intra-operatively, immediate repair over a ureteric stent is the treatment of choice. Early recognition allows preservation of renal function, promotes healing, and prevents urinoma, fistula, or stricture formation.

Teaching Points:
• Intra-operative recognition → immediate repair
• Partial injuries → stent ± primary repair
• Delayed recognition increases stricture and fistula risk
• Always confirm ureteric integrity during pelvic surgery

A 2-year-old child with non-palpable testis undergoes laparoscopy. The testis is high intra-abdominal with short vessels not allowing tension-free orchidopexy. Best management?
A. Orchiectomy
B. Single-stage Fowler–Stephens orchidopexy
C. Two-stage Fowler–Stephens orchidopexy with 3-month gap
D. Two-stage Fowler–Stephens orchidopexy with 6-month gap
E. Immediate open repair

Correct Answer: D. Two-stage Fowler–Stephens orchidopexy with 6-month gap

Explanation:
High intra-abdominal testes with short spermatic vessels cannot be mobilized safely in one stage. The Fowler–Stephens technique relies on collateral blood supply from the deferential and cremasteric arteries after division of testicular vessels. A 6-month interval allows adequate neovascularization and significantly reduces testicular atrophy.

Teaching Points:
• Gold standard for high intra-abdominal testis = two-stage Fowler–Stephens
• Optimal gap = 6 months (not 3 months)
• Success rate ≈ 85–90%
• Orchiectomy reserved for post-pubertal or severely atrophic testis

A 58-year-old man has a 3.5-cm solid enhancing renal mass confined to Gerota’s fascia with a normal opposite kidney. Best management?
A. Radical nephrectomy
B. Partial nephrectomy
C. Active surveillance
D. Percutaneous ablation

Correct Answer: B. Partial nephrectomy

Explanation:
A renal mass <4 cm is classified as T1a RCC. Nephron-sparing surgery provides equivalent oncologic outcomes while preserving long-term renal function. Radical nephrectomy is avoided unless partial nephrectomy is not technically feasible.

Teaching Points:
• RCC <4 cm = T1a
• Treatment of choice = partial nephrectomy
• Radical nephrectomy → higher CKD risk
• Ablation / surveillance reserved for unfit patients

NSGCT with retroperitoneal nodes, lung metastases, and elevated AFP & β-hCG after orchidectomy. First-line chemotherapy?
A. EP × 4 cycles
B. BEP × 3 cycles
C. VIP × 4 cycles
D. Carboplatin
E. Observation

Correct Answer: B. BEP × 3 cycles

Explanation:
BEP (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) is the standard first-line regimen for metastatic NSGCT with good-risk features. Number of cycles is determined by IGCCCG risk stratification.

Teaching Points:
• Good-risk NSGCT → BEP × 3
• Intermediate / poor risk → BEP × 4
• VIP used if bleomycin contraindicated

Blunt abdominal trauma with renal hilar injury and hemodynamic instability. Best incision?
A. Left subcostal
B. Right subcostal
C. Flank incision
D. Midline laparotomy

Correct Answer: D. Midline laparotomy

Explanation:
In a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient, the priority is rapid access and vascular control, not organ-specific exposure. A midline laparotomy: Is the fastest incision to enter the abdomen Provides access to all four quadrants Allows proximal vascular control (infrarenal or supraceliac aorta) Permits assessment and control of associated intra-abdominal injuries In renal hilar injuries, early control of the renal pedicle or even supraceliac aortic control may be lifesaving. This is best achieved through a midline incision. Subcostal, flank, or chevron incisions are elective, organ-specific approaches and are inappropriate in unstable trauma.

Teaching Points:
• Unstable abdominal trauma → midline laparotomy
• Renal hilar injury → priority is vascular control
• Flank / subcostal incisions are elective

Short anterior urethral stricture with poor urinary stream. Best initial management?
A. Long-term catheter
B. Repeated dilatation
C. Direct visual internal urethrotomy (DVIU)
D. Excision and anastomotic urethroplasty
E. SPC

Correct Answer: C. Direct visual internal urethrotomy (DVIU)

Explanation:
For a first-presentation, short (<1–2 cm), single anterior urethral stricture, DVIU is the preferred initial treatment.

Teaching Points:
• Short anterior stricture → DVIU first
• Repeated DVIU → poor long-term outcome
• Recurrent / long strictures → urethroplasty

Best investigation for suspected urethral injury?
A. Cystoscopy
B. CT abdomen
C. Ultrasound
D. Retrograde urethrogram
E. MRI pelvis

Correct Answer: D. Retrograde urethrogram

Explanation:
RUG is the gold-standard initial investigation in suspected urethral injury and must be done before catheterization.

Teaching Points:
• Blood at meatus = urethral injury until proven otherwise
• Never pass Foley before RUG

RGU shows contrast extravasation from urethra. Next step?
A. Urethral catheterization
B. Primary urethral repair
C. Suprapubic cystostomy
D. Immediate urethroplasty

Correct Answer: C. Suprapubic cystostomy

Explanation:
Once urethral injury is confirmed, urethral catheterization is contraindicated. Urinary diversion via suprapubic cystostomy is the safest immediate step.

Teaching Points:
• Confirmed urethral injury → SPC
• Definitive repair is delayed

Endocrinology – NEET SS 2025

A 52-year-old man is incidentally found to have a 3 cm adrenal mass on CT scan done for abdominal pain. He is asymptomatic. Hormonal evaluation (cortisol, catecholamines, aldosterone) is normal. The lesion is homogeneous with benign imaging features. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Immediate adrenalectomy
B. Percutaneous biopsy of adrenal mass
C. Observation with interval imaging
D. Start empirical steroid therapy

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Non-functional adrenal incidentalomas are managed based on size, hormonal activity, and imaging characteristics. Lesions <4 cm that are non-functional and show benign radiologic features carry a very low risk of malignancy. Surgery is therefore not routinely indicated, and conservative follow-up is appropriate.

Teaching Points:
• Adrenal incidentaloma assessment depends on size, function, and imaging
• <4 cm + non-functional + benign imaging → observe
• ≥4–6 cm or suspicious features → consider surgery
• Follow-up: repeat imaging at 6–12 months, hormonal evaluation annually up to 5 years

Neurosurgery – NEET SS 2025