Free MCQs in Liver

Free Liver MCQs — practice for NEET SS / GI surgery. Explanations appear inside the Answer with short Teaching Points.

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1) Which of the following structures is not part of the portal triad in liver?
a) Portal Vein
b) Hepatic vein
c) Hepatic Artery
d) Bile Duct
1.b Hepatic vein do not form part of the portal triad. It forms the central vein around which the hepatocytes are arranged and on the periphery is the portal triad consisting of Portal Vein posteriorly, the bile duct on the right and Hepatic artery on the left
Teaching Points:
  • Hepatic vein do not form part of the portal triad.
  • Portal triad consists of Portal Vein (posterior), Bile Duct (right) and Hepatic artery (left).

2) Which of the following risk factors has the least association with the development of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)?
a) Hepatitis B
b) Hepatitis C
c) oral contraceptives
d) Smoking
2. c Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C have known association with cirrhosis and Hepatocellular Carcinoma. Other significant risk factors are Chronic alcohol abuse Smoking Aflatoxins Nitrates, Nitrites Haemochromatosis, Wilson, Aplpha 1 Antitrypsin deficiemcy Throrotrast Associations with hormonal manipulations such as the use of oral contraceptive agents and anabolic steroids have been suggested but are weak Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are well-established major risk factors for Hepatocellular Carcinoma due to their chronic inflammatory and fibrotic effects on the liver. Smoking is also associated with an increased risk, likely due to the carcinogenic compounds that can promote hepatic tumorigenesis. In contrast, while early studies suggested a possible link between long-term OCP use and liver tumors (especially benign hepatic adenomas), there is no strong evidence to support a significant association between OCPs and HCC.
Teaching Points:
  • Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C have known association with cirrhosis and Hepatocellular Carcinoma.
  • Other significant risk factors: chronic alcohol abuse, smoking, aflatoxins, nitrates/nitrites, haemochromatosis, Wilson disease, alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency, thorotrast.
  • Associations with oral contraceptives are suggested but weak; OCPs mainly linked to hepatic adenomas rather than HCC.

3) Which is not a paraneoplastic syndrome for Hepatocellular Carcinoma ?
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Erythrocytosis
d) Hyperglycemia
3. d Less than 1% of cases of HCC present as a paraneoplastic syndrome Paraneoplastic syndromes such as diarrhea, hypoglycemia, erythrocytosis, and hypercalcemia may also be present and are generally associated with poor prognosis Hepatocellular carcinoma can be associated with several paraneoplastic syndromes, including: Hypercalcemia – due to ectopic production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) Hypoglycemia – often seen in advanced tumors due to increased glucose consumption by the tumor or decreased hepatic gluconeogenesis Polycythemia – due to ectopic erythropoietin production These paraneoplastic features may be the first clinical clue in a patient with underlying liver disease developing HCC.
Teaching Points:
  • Paraneoplastic syndromes in HCC (although <1% cases) include hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and erythrocytosis (polycythemia).
  • These manifestations often indicate an aggressive tumor and may be the first clinical clue.

4) A 60-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and melena. He is diagnosed with hemobilia.Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
a) Blunt Trauma Abdomen
b) Iatrogenic injury
c) Cholelithiasis
d) Hepatic artery aneurysm
4.b This patient presents with Quincke’s triad (right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and GI bleeding), which is characteristic of hemobilia. Given his recent liver biopsy, the most likely cause is iatrogenic trauma, which is the leading cause of hemobilia in modern clinical practice. Earlier Blunt Abdominal trauma was the most common cause of Hemobilia. But recently with the advent of more interventional procedures like PTBD (Percutaneous Transhepatic Biliary Drainage), hemobilia has become more common.
Teaching Points:
  • Quincke’s triad: RUQ pain, jaundice, GI bleeding — characteristic of hemobilia.
  • Today most hemobilia is iatrogenic (biopsy, PTBD, procedures); blunt trauma was previously the commonest cause.

5) Which is not true regarding Haemangioendothelioma of liver?
a) It is a rare tumor
b) It is highly vascular
c) It involves both lobes of the liver
d) In 50% cases it has extrahepatic spread
5.d Hepatic epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (HEHE) is a rare, low- to intermediate-grade vascular tumor. It often presents with multifocal liver involvement in young to middle-aged adults. The diagnosis is confirmed via histopathology and immunohistochemistry (positive for endothelial markers like CD31, CD34, and CAMTA1). Due to its unpredictable behavior and resistance to chemotherapy, liver transplantation is considered the treatment of choice, especially in multifocal disease without extrahepatic spread. Extra hepatic spread is seen in 25% only Death is usually due to liver failure. All other options are correct
Teaching Points:
  • HEHE is a rare vascular tumor with multifocal liver involvement.
  • Diagnosis: histopathology and IHC (CD31, CD34, CAMTA1).
  • Extrahepatic spread ~25% (not 50%); transplant may be considered for multifocal disease.

6) 55 year old male undergoes TIPS for refractory ascites Which of the following is not true about shunt encephalopathy?
a) TIPS is associated with 30% risk of encephalopathy in one year.
b) Neomycin and Lactulose have an established role in treating chronic encepahlopathy
c) Flumazenil, a selective antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors has a role in management
d) Most of the TIPS encephalopathy can be reversed by Percutaneous techniques.
c Key to the management of encephalopathy is identifying and then eliminating whatever precipitating factors are responsible. All infections should be treated, all sedatives should be discontinued, and intestinal catharsis should be accomplished. Pharmacologic treatment of encephalopathy is indicated for patients with chronic, intermittent symptoms and for those with persistent, acute psychoneurologic disturbances despite elimination of precipitating factors. The only drugs with proven effectiveness are neomycin, a poorly absorbed antibiotic that suppresses urease containing bacteria, and lactulose, a nonabsorbable disaccharide that acidifies colonic contents and also has a cathartic effect Unproven therapies for encephalopathy include the enteral or parenteral administration of branched-chain amino acids and the drug flumazenil, a selective antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors
Teaching Points:
  • Identify and correct precipitating factors (infection, sedatives, metabolic causes).
  • Lactulose and neomycin are effective treatments; flumazenil is unproven.

7) Which of the following statements is true for cryoablation in metastatic colorectal liver secondaries?
a) Larger vessels tolerate cryotherapy well
b) Larger Bile duct tolerates cryotherapy well
c) Bleeding from the probe tract is a major problem after cryotherapy
d) Survival rates after cryotherpay after 2 years in unresectable metastatic disease is more than 90%
a Cryotherapy is a good ablation for unresectable liver cancer. It has a 2 year survival of 60% in unresectable group. Big sized blood vessels are relatively not affected much because of the rapid blood flow which prevents injury but larger bile ducts are at risk of injury. Cryotherapy is generally avoided at sites near major bile ducts. Bleeding from the probe tract is never a major problem as it can easily be embolized
Teaching Points:
  • Large blood vessels are protected by rapid blood flow (heat/cold sink).
  • Bile ducts are vulnerable; avoid cryotherapy near major bile ducts.
  • Probe tract bleeding is manageable (embolization) and not usually major.

8) Which of the following statements about shock liver is incorrect?
a) Liver enzymes are not elevated
b) Centrilobular necrosis is present
c) Infarction occurs after hepatic artery ligation in face of hypoperfusion
d) It is associated with hypoperfusion of liver
a In shock liver, liver enzymes (AST, ALT) rise rapidly, often within hours, and LDH levels are markedly elevated, not mildly. The condition usually resolves with correction of the underlying cause, and liver failure is rare. Histologically, it is characterized by centrilobular (zone 3) necrosis, as this region is most susceptible to hypoxia. Recovery is usually possible if the underlying cause is reversed.
Teaching Points:
  • AST/ALT rise rapidly and markedly in ischemic hepatitis (shock liver).
  • Histology: centrilobular (zone 3) necrosis due to hypoxia.

9) What is not true regarding Ultrasound Microbubble Contrast Agents in detecting focal lesions in the liver
a) The Microbubble Contrast Agents have high affinity for the Kupffer Cells
b) They help in better delineation of the type of liver lesion whether it is benign or malignant
c) Advantage of Contrast Enhanced Ultrasound (CEUS) is that a real time scan is available and not relying on predefined time as in CT scan
d) Results of CE US are inferior as compared to CECT or MRI
d Contrast Enhanced Ultrasound is a new modality which consists of injecting contrast bubbles in the circulatuion and as these contrast get adherent to the Kupffer cells of liver, they emit acoustic signals which are then picked up by the USG probe. Now 2nd generation contrast bubbles are available that emit acoustic signals as they contract and expand. These bubbles remian in circulation and detection of arterial and portal phase becomes easier Advantages over CT scan are 1 the microbubble contrast agents are real blood-pool agents not leaving the intravascular space 2 A continuous imaging over the whole enhancement period with high temporal resolution is possible, not limited to distinct, pre-defined time points Other advantages are no exposure to radiation, absence of nephrotoxic contrast agents and large availability of machines. In comparison with CT and/or dynamic MRI, SonoVue®-enhanced sonography applied for characterization of focal liver lesions was 30.2% more sensitive in the recognition of malignancy and 16.1% more specific in the exclusion of malignancy and overall 22.9% more accurate.
Teaching Points:
  • CEUS uses microbubble contrast agents that remain intravascular and interact with Kupffer cells.
  • CEUS allows continuous, real-time imaging of arterial and portal phases.
  • Advantages include no radiation exposure and no nephrotoxic contrast agents.

10) Which of the following regarding post operative outcome following major hepatic resection is true?
a) The clinical examination by an experienced hepatic surgeon is the most important predictor of survival following liver resection
b) Mortality following major hepatic resections in most centers is still more than 10%
c) The Child Pugh System was originally developed to predict mortality after liver resection
d) There are two objective and three subjective criteria in Child Pugh Scoring
Ans ) a Despite a long list of functional, biochemical tests and imaging studies, the clinical examination by an experienced hepatic surgeon remains the most important issue in major hepatic resections. With improvements in surgical technique, anesthesia and ICU care liver resection now has a mortality of less than 3% Child Pugh System was initially developed for patients of Postal Hypertension who underwent a shunt procedure. It has three objective (Bilirubin, Ascites, INR) and two subjective (Ascites, Encephalopathy) criteria
Teaching Points:
  • Clinical examination by an experienced hepatic surgeon is the most important predictor of outcome.
  • Modern mortality after major hepatic resection is <3% in many centers.
  • Child–Pugh was developed for portal hypertension shunt patients; it includes 3 objective and 2 subjective criteria.