GI Surgery – NEET SS 2025
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
EGJOO is defined by impaired LES relaxation with preserved peristalsis. Achalasia always shows absent or abnormal peristalsis.
Teaching Points:
• Elevated IRP + normal peristalsis = EGJOO
• Exclude mechanical obstruction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Ongoing shock with failed endoscopic control mandates urgent surgical hemostasis.
Teaching Points:
• Unstable + failed endoscopy = surgery
• Posterior DU → gastroduodenal artery
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Borchardt’s triad is classic for acute gastric volvulus.
Teaching Points:
• Borchardt triad = volvulus
• Surgical emergency
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Organoaxial is the most common type and is associated with paraesophageal hernia.
Teaching Points:
• Long-axis rotation
• Often acute in adults
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Hepatoblastoma is the most common malignant liver tumor in young children and AFP is elevated in >90%.
Teaching Points:
• High AFP + child = hepatoblastoma
• Treat with chemo + surgery
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The right gastroepiploic artery is preserved as the sole blood supply of the gastric conduit.
Teaching Points:
• Essential to prevent anastomotic leak
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Courvoisier’s sign indicates malignant obstruction of distal CBD.
Teaching Points:
• Painless jaundice + palpable GB = malignancy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Leiomyoma is the most common benign esophageal tumor.
Teaching Points:
• Smooth mucosa differentiates from carcinoma
Urology – NEET SS 2025
Correct Answer: C. Placement of double-J stent and repair
Explanation:
When a partial ureteric injury is recognized intra-operatively, immediate repair over a ureteric stent is the treatment of choice.
Early recognition allows preservation of renal function, promotes healing, and prevents urinoma, fistula, or stricture formation.
Teaching Points:
• Intra-operative recognition → immediate repair
• Partial injuries → stent ± primary repair
• Delayed recognition increases stricture and fistula risk
• Always confirm ureteric integrity during pelvic surgery
Correct Answer: D. Two-stage Fowler–Stephens orchidopexy with 6-month gap
Explanation:
High intra-abdominal testes with short spermatic vessels cannot be mobilized safely in one stage.
The Fowler–Stephens technique relies on collateral blood supply from the deferential and cremasteric arteries after division of testicular vessels.
A 6-month interval allows adequate neovascularization and significantly reduces testicular atrophy.
Teaching Points:
• Gold standard for high intra-abdominal testis = two-stage Fowler–Stephens
• Optimal gap = 6 months (not 3 months)
• Success rate ≈ 85–90%
• Orchiectomy reserved for post-pubertal or severely atrophic testis
Correct Answer: B. Partial nephrectomy
Explanation:
A renal mass <4 cm is classified as T1a RCC.
Nephron-sparing surgery provides equivalent oncologic outcomes while preserving long-term renal function.
Radical nephrectomy is avoided unless partial nephrectomy is not technically feasible.
Teaching Points:
• RCC <4 cm = T1a
• Treatment of choice = partial nephrectomy
• Radical nephrectomy → higher CKD risk
• Ablation / surveillance reserved for unfit patients
Correct Answer: B. BEP × 3 cycles
Explanation:
BEP (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) is the standard first-line regimen for metastatic NSGCT with good-risk features.
Number of cycles is determined by IGCCCG risk stratification.
Teaching Points:
• Good-risk NSGCT → BEP × 3
• Intermediate / poor risk → BEP × 4
• VIP used if bleomycin contraindicated
Correct Answer: D. Midline laparotomy
Explanation:
In a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient, the priority is rapid access and vascular control, not organ-specific exposure.
A midline laparotomy:
Is the fastest incision to enter the abdomen
Provides access to all four quadrants
Allows proximal vascular control (infrarenal or supraceliac aorta)
Permits assessment and control of associated intra-abdominal injuries
In renal hilar injuries, early control of the renal pedicle or even supraceliac aortic control may be lifesaving. This is best achieved through a midline incision.
Subcostal, flank, or chevron incisions are elective, organ-specific approaches and are inappropriate in unstable trauma.
Teaching Points:
• Unstable abdominal trauma → midline laparotomy
• Renal hilar injury → priority is vascular control
• Flank / subcostal incisions are elective
Correct Answer: C. Direct visual internal urethrotomy (DVIU)
Explanation:
For a first-presentation, short (<1–2 cm), single anterior urethral stricture, DVIU is the preferred initial treatment.
Teaching Points:
• Short anterior stricture → DVIU first
• Repeated DVIU → poor long-term outcome
• Recurrent / long strictures → urethroplasty
Correct Answer: D. Retrograde urethrogram
Explanation:
RUG is the gold-standard initial investigation in suspected urethral injury and must be done before catheterization.
Teaching Points:
• Blood at meatus = urethral injury until proven otherwise
• Never pass Foley before RUG
Correct Answer: C. Suprapubic cystostomy
Explanation:
Once urethral injury is confirmed, urethral catheterization is contraindicated.
Urinary diversion via suprapubic cystostomy is the safest immediate step.
Teaching Points:
• Confirmed urethral injury → SPC
• Definitive repair is delayed
Endocrinology – NEET SS 2025
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Non-functional adrenal incidentalomas are managed based on size, hormonal activity, and imaging characteristics.
Lesions <4 cm that are non-functional and show benign radiologic features carry a very low risk of malignancy.
Surgery is therefore not routinely indicated, and conservative follow-up is appropriate.
Teaching Points:
• Adrenal incidentaloma assessment depends on size, function, and imaging
• <4 cm + non-functional + benign imaging → observe
• ≥4–6 cm or suspicious features → consider surgery
• Follow-up: repeat imaging at 6–12 months, hormonal evaluation annually up to 5 years