colon

Management of various Hereditary Syndromes

by

Q) Total Proctocolectomy is required for which of the following ? ( MCH GI Surgery Question- Click here for all) 

a) Cowden

b) HNPCC

c) Gardner

d) PJS  

Snippet -- HNPCC- Lynch syndrome patients develop colorectal and extracolonic cancers at a young age. It accounts for approximately 3% of all CRCs, and 10% to 19% of CRCs diagnosed before age 50. Read on..........

Cowden

by

Q) Not seen in cowden syndrome
A. NET
B. Hamartoma
C. CA breast
D. Bowel malignancy

Malignancy risk in CS is significant outside the GI tract. Women have a 50% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer ...............

Read on ..............

Colon Lymphoma

by

Q) A 55-year-old male patient presents with chronic abdominal pain, weight loss, and intermittent diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals a mass in the cecum, and biopsy confirms colonic lymphoma. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding this condition?

A) Colonic lymphoma is predominantly of T-cell origin
B) It is more common in females
C) The cecum is the most common site of involvement
D) It typically presents in the 3rd and 4th decades of life

C) The cecum is the most common site of involvement

Explanation:

Colonic lymphoma is a rare form of lymphoma that primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract. Among the options provided:

  • A) Colonic lymphoma is predominantly of T-cell origin: This is incorrect. Colonic lymphoma is most commonly of B-cell origin, particularly extranodal marginal zone lymphoma (MALT lymphoma), rather than T-cell lymphoma.
  • B) It is more common in females: This is also incorrect. Colonic lymphoma does not have a strong gender predilection. The incidence is more balanced between males and females.
  • C) The cecum is the most common site of involvement: This is correct. The cecum is the most frequent site of involvement in colonic lymphoma, especially for extranodal B-cell lymphoma, such as MALT lymphoma. It tends to present as a mass-like lesion, often causing symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss.
  • D) It typically presents in the 3rd and 4th decades of life: This is incorrect. Colonic lymphoma is more commonly diagnosed in older adults, typically over the age of 50. It is relatively rare in younger individuals.

Handsewn IPAA vs stapled anastomosis

by

Q Handsewn IPAA vs Stapled anastomosis which is the wrong statement?
a. More stricture rate in hand sewn anastomosis
b. More leak is seen in hand sewn anastomosis
c. More pouchitis in hand sewn
d. More incidence of Small bowel obstruction in hand sewn anastomosis

 

CT colonogrpahy

by

Q) Which of the following is not an indication of CT colography

a) Obstructed growth to look for  synchronous lesions
b. Can’t do colonoscopy
c. High risk pt with suspicion of ca colon

d)   50 year old with Average risk

Metastatic NET

by

Q) Girl with pain upper abdomen.  CT Abdomen shows  4 X 5 cm mass in segment V  and thickening in ileocecal region.
Liver Biopsy shows NET. Next line of management:?

error: Content is protected !!