NEET SS practise tests

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MOCK TEST 16

Mock Test 16

Sunday, 20th September 2026

🔥 GI Surgery + Plastic Surgery

Test yourself with high-yield, clinically oriented questions designed for NEET-SS Surgical preparation.

📚 Topics
GI Surgery  •  Plastic Surgery

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Wound Healing

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Inflammatory Phase Wound Healing MCQ – Predominant Cells at 48 Hours

📘 Theme: Plastic Surgery – Wound Healing (NEET SS / INI-CET High Yield)

Clinical Wound Healing MCQ

A 28-year-old male presents 48 hours after a clean surgical incision. The wound shows mild erythema without pus. Which of the following cells is predominantly responsible for the inflammatory phase at this stage?

A. Monocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Platelets

Answer: A. Monocytes (macrophages)

Explanation

During the inflammatory phase of wound healing (24–72 hours), monocytes migrate into the wound and differentiate into macrophages. These cells are the key regulators of healing, performing phagocytosis and releasing growth factors that initiate the proliferative phase.

Why other options are incorrect

  • Lymphocytes: Seen in later or chronic inflammatory phases, not dominant early.
  • Fibroblasts: Key cells of proliferative phase responsible for collagen deposition.
  • Platelets: Important in immediate hemostasis phase (first few hours only).

High-yield teaching points

  • 0–24 hrs: Neutrophils dominate.
  • 24–72 hrs: Macrophages (from monocytes) dominate ⭐
  • Macrophages are the “director cells” of wound healing.
  • They regulate angiogenesis, fibroblast activation, and collagen synthesis.

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Cystic tumors Pancreas

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Cystic tumors Pancreas MCQ | Central Scar Microcystic Lesion

Serous Cystadenoma Pancreas MCQ – Central Scar Microcystic Lesion

📘 Theme: Pancreas – Cystic Neoplasms (NEET SS / INI-CET High Yield)

Cystic tumors Pancreas Imaging MCQ

A 52-year-old woman undergoes imaging for vague abdominal discomfort. CT scan shows a well-circumscribed lesion in the head of the pancreas with multiple small cysts and a central stellate scar. Serum CEA and CA 19-9 levels are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mucinous cystic neoplasm
B. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN)
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Solid pseudopapillary tumor

Answer: C. Serous cystadenoma

Explanation

Serous cystadenoma (microcystic adenoma) is a benign pancreatic cystic tumor characterized by a microcystic appearance and a central stellate scar (sunburst pattern). Tumor markers such as CEA and CA 19-9 are typically normal, helping differentiate it from mucinous lesions.

Why other options are incorrect

  • Mucinous cystic neoplasm: Macrocystic, occurs in body/tail, elevated CEA, malignant potential.
  • IPMN: Communicates with pancreatic duct, causes ductal dilation, may raise CA 19-9.
  • Solid pseudopapillary tumor: Seen in young women, mixed solid-cystic, no central scar.

High-yield teaching points

  • Central stellate scar + microcystic lesion = serous cystadenoma.
  • Normal CEA favors serous over mucinous lesions.
  • Surgery indicated only if symptomatic, large, or uncertain diagnosis.

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Waldeyer fascia

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Mock Test 2 • 1 March 2026 | Rectal Surgical Anatomy

A 60-year-old man undergoes total mesorectal excision for low rectal cancer. During posterior dissection, a dense fascial condensation at the level of S4 is divided to enter the deep retrorectal space.

All of the following statements regarding Waldeyer fascia are true EXCEPT:

A. It forms the anterior boundary of the mesorectum and separates the rectum from the prostate
B. It connects the presacral fascia to the fascia propria of the rectum
C. It is usually encountered at the level of the fourth sacral vertebra
D. Division allows entry into the deep retrorectal space
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Small bowel distenson

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NOMI MCQ | mcqsurgery.com
Q) A critically ill ICU patient on high-dose vasopressors develops abdominal distension and rising lactate. CT angiography shows patent mesenteric vessels but poor distal bowel wall enhancement. The most appropriate management is:
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Valve Surgery

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Valve Choice in Young Female with Rheumatic Mitral Stenosis MCQ

Clinical Scenario: A 28-year-old woman with rheumatic mitral stenosis requires valve replacement. She wishes to become pregnant.

Best valve choice?

A. Mechanical mitral valve
B. Bioprosthetic mitral valve
C. Ross procedure
D. Mitral valve repair is contraindicated

Nutritional Screening

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NRS-2002 Nutritional Screening MCQ | mcqsurgery.com
Q) According to NRS-2002, which patient needs nutritional intervention?
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Debakey Classification

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Aortic Dissection – DeBakey Classification MCQ

Clinical Scenario: A 52-year-old hypertensive male presents with sudden retrosternal chest pain radiating to the back. CT angiography reveals dissection confined to the ascending aorta without involvement of the arch or descending thoracic aorta.

Which DeBakey classification does this correspond to?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIIa
D. Type IIIb

AFP & Embryomal cell carcinoma of Testis

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AFP in Pure Embryonal Cell Carcinoma MCQ | mcqsurgery.com
Q) Which of the following statements about alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in pure embryonal cell carcinoma is most accurate?
✅ Answer: c) AFP is elevated in 50-80% of cases of pure embryonal cell carcinoma.

🔍 Explanation:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a **tumor marker** commonly elevated in **non-seminomatous germ cell tumors** (NSGCTs), which includes **embryonal cell carcinoma**. AFP levels are elevated in approximately **50-80%** of cases of **pure embryonal carcinoma**, and this elevation is associated with the **yolk sac tumor component** that is often seen within these tumors.
  • AFP is a **glycoprotein** produced by the fetal liver and yolk sac, and its levels are typically **low in adults**.
  • It is elevated in conditions like **liver cancer**, **germ cell tumors**, and **yolk sac tumors** (which may be seen with embryonal carcinoma).
  • In **seminomas**, AFP is **usually normal**, and they are typically not associated with AFP elevation.
  • Correct interpretation of AFP levels is important for **diagnosis**, **monitoring treatment response**, and **detecting recurrence** in **germ cell tumors**.
Misinterpreting AFP levels can lead to **incorrect staging** or **diagnosis** of testicular cancers.
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GCS Intubated patient

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Multiple MCQs Example | mcqsurgery.com
Q1) What is the maximum possible GCS score for an intubated patient?
Show Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: c) 11T

🔍 Explanation: In intubated patients, verbal cannot be assessed (T). Max score = Eye 4 + Motor 6 = 10, written as 11T. Explanation and Teaching Points: Intubated patients cannot be assessed for the verbal response, which is replaced by “T”. The verbal component (maximum 5) is omitted, so the best total becomes Eye (4) + Motor (6) = 10, and the notation “T” is added, making it 11T. Regular reassessment (every 30 minutes) is crucial to detect changes in neurological status.