NEET SS practise tests
MEN 1
Q) A 32-year-old woman presents with fatigue and kidney stones. Labs show:
- Serum calcium: 11.6 mg/dL (elevated)
- PTH: inappropriately elevated
- Serum prolactin: normal
- Fasting glucose: elevated, HbA1c: 7.2%
Her brother had a gastrinoma and hyperparathyroidism in his 30s.
A MEN1 mutation is detected on genetic testing.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
- Serum calcium: 11.6 mg/dL (elevated)
- PTH: inappropriately elevated
- Serum prolactin: normal
- Fasting glucose: elevated, HbA1c: 7.2%
Her brother had a gastrinoma and hyperparathyroidism in his 30s.
A MEN1 mutation is detected on genetic testing.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
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TIPS
Q: A 60-year-old man with cirrhosis presents with refractory ascites requiring frequent large-volume paracentesis. He is evaluated for TIPS placement. Which of the following findings would be the strongest contraindication to proceeding with the procedure?
A) Serum bilirubin of 3.5 mg/dL
B) MELD score of 18
C) Right heart catheterization showing mean pulmonary artery pressure of 55 mmHg
D) History of prior hepatic encephalopathy controlled on lactulose
Malignancy risk in Stem cells
Q: Risk of malignancy is highest with which stem cells?
# Bailey Chapter 4
a) Somatic cells
b) SSc
c) Fetal cells
d) All
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Giant cell tumor femur
Q) A 22-year-old woman presents with a giant cell tumor (GCT) of the distal
femur. Appropriate treatment would be: ( theme from test 13 on 31/3/24)
A. Curettage and debridement.
B. Amputation.
C. Radiation.
D. Preoperative chemotherapy, resection, and adjuvant chemotherapy.