Q) A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a stab wound to the right chest.
On examination, there is a 4 cm open wound in the 5th intercostal space anteriorly, with a sucking sound during inspiration, decreased breath sounds on the right, and respiratory distress.
A. Immediately close the wound with an airtight dressing B. Insert a chest tube on the same side and then close the wound C. Intubate and initiate positive pressure ventilation D. Apply a three-sided occlusive dressing to the wound
Answer D. Apply a three-sided occlusive dressing to the wound
This is a classic presentation of an open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound. When the chest wound is ≥2–3 cm (or ≥2/3 the diameter of the trachea), air preferentially enters through the chest wall defect instead of the trachea, impairing ventilation.
Management steps:
Initial step: Apply a three-sided occlusive dressing — this allows air to escape during exhalation but prevents air from entering during inhalation, avoiding tension pneumothorax.
Definitive step: Place a chest tube (thoracostomy) on the same side before fully sealing the wound.
A is incorrect because a fully sealed dressing without a chest tube can cause tension pneumothorax. B is correct only after the initial temporary occlusive dressing is applied. C may be needed later but not before securing the wound.
Q) a 50 year old man with road side accident and injuries on right chest and femoral fracture, He is conscious, BP is 80/60 , Pulse 104/min, and chest expansion is reduced. JVP is not raised and heart sounds are normal. Respiratory rate is 22/min
Q) A young 18 years old unrestrained car driver has an head on collision with a truck and becomes unconscious. He is intubated on the site of accident and resuscitated with IV fluids. He is brought to the emergency in a state of shock,( BP 90/60 and pulse 120/min) but opens eyes on commands. On examination he does not have pallor but neck veins are distended.
There are no signs suggestive of head or spine injury. Xray chest reveals normal cardiac chambers, no free gas and mild pleural effusion on left with no evidence of fracture ribs.
What will be the next step of management
a) Resuscitation and simultaneous CT thorax
b) Resuscitation and simultaneous Echo cardiography
Q) Most common site for traumatic aortic rupture is
a) Distal to the origin of left subclavian artery
b) Point of entry of aorta above the diaphragm
c) Root of aorta
d) Point distal to Left carotid artery
Answer
a) Distal to origin of subclavian artery
Traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death after high impact automobile accident or fall from height. Aorta is relatively fixed distal to ligament arteriosum just distal to the origin of subclavian artery and this is the most common site of traumatic rupture especially partial rupture in which adventitia is intact.
Specific clinical findings are
Asymmetry of BP in upper limbs or upper and lower limbs
Q) In penetrating neck trauma, to help in the management, neck has been divided into zones. Great vessels of thoracic inlet are seen in (#Gen Surgery Trauma)