Q ) A 59 year old male alcoholic male presents with history of upper GI bleed of 1 day duration. During the day he has had three episodes of bleeding each time about 150 ml. Blood is fresh and not associated with retching. He has a history of long standing alcohol intake. What will be the most likely cause of GI bleed?
a) Mallory weiss tear
b) Esophageal varices
c) Gastric ulcer
d) Esophagitis
11 b
Long standing alcohol intake means some stigma of liver disease leading to chronic liver disease and consequently esophageal varices.
Mallory Weiss tear occurs with retching and after episodes of binge drinking
Gastric and duodenal ulcers are related to alcohol but usually presents at 40 years
Esophagitis will have associated symptoms of GERD and long standing history
Acalculus cholecystitis can be both acute and chronic in the absence of stones. Although it can present acutely, acalculous cholecystitis typically presents more insidiously.
Mostly the acute form is recognized and chronic form is called biliary dyskinesia.
Jaundice in acalculus cholecystitis is known to occur because of ischemia and inflammation cystic duct gets obstructed due to edema
Diagnosis
Chronic acalculus cholecystitis is a cholescintigraphy nuclear scan (HIDA) with the administration of cholecystokinin (CCK). After the . A calculated ejection fraction of 35% or less may be indicative of hypokinetic functioning of the gallbladder. An ultrasound of the gallbladder may also be useful. If this shows a thickened gallbladder wall of over 3.5 mm, this may be due to cholecystitis.
Q) In gastric cancer, lymph node station 12 corresponds to
a) Common hepatic
b) Hepatoduodenal
c) Retropancreatic
d) Superior Mesenteric
Ans b
In gastric cancer, lymph node station 12 corresponds to the hepatoduodenal ligament lymph nodes. These nodes are specifically located along the hepatoduodenal ligament and are further subdivided into groups based on their anatomical relationship: along the hepatic artery (12a), along the bile duct (12b), and behind the portal vein (12p)
✅ Answer: A. It is proctosigmoidectomy with posterior levatoroplasty
Explanation: The Altemeier procedure is a perineal rectosigmoidectomy (proctosigmoidectomy) performed for complete rectal prolapse. It is commonly combined with posterior levatoroplasty, which restores pelvic floor support and helps reduce recurrence.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. The procedure is usually performed in the lithotomy position, not the left lateral position.
C. Reported recurrence rates are generally 10–30%; a recurrence rate of 50% is not considered typical.
D. Although the procedure bears Altemeier's name, he popularized and refined the operation rather than being the first to perform it.
Take-home Message: Altemeier = Perineal rectosigmoidectomy + posterior levatoroplasty; performed in the lithotomy position; preferred perineal operation for complete rectal prolapse in elderly or high-risk patients.
Reference: Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, 22nd Edition, p. 1394.