MRSA infection
Q) A 50-year-old male with past history of MRSA presents to the emergency department 7 days after sigmoid colectomy with complaints of purulent drainage from his surgical incision
Temp is 102 F
Vitals stable
Purulent drainage is easily expressed from the most inferior aspect of the incision.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
a) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin and Piperacillin-Tazobactam
b) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture and start on an empiric course of IV Vancomycin alone
c) Open the incision, obtain a fluid culture, and hold off on starting antimicrobial therapy until culture data returns
d) Discharge home on a 7-day course of oral Cephalexin
General Surgery MCQs
High Yield Question on General Surgery past exams and standard books
Useful for NEET SS and INI
Modified Mallampati Grades
Q ) 48 year old male is about to under go TEPP. On PAC on mouth opening only hard palate is seen. Which modified Mallampati grade is this?
a) Grade I
b) Grade II
c) Grade III
d) Grade IV
Nutrition and Perio Op management
Distributive Shock
Q) What is not seen in Distributive Shock?
a) High central venous pressure
b) High Cardiac output
c) High Base deficit
d) High Mixed Venous Saturation
MCQs on Shock and Body Response
Thyroid storm
She presented in emergency with high grade fever and hypotension (Thyroid Storm).
What is not a part of further management?
Staging in Adenocarcinoma lung
Q) Patient with 2cm lung nodule, biopsy proven adenocarcinoma. CT shows hilar lymph node 1.5cm and left pleural effusion. Pleural fluid cytology is positive for malignant cells. What is the stage?

