Hemangioma Liver

Hepatic Hemangioma Management MCQ for NEET SS | mcqsurgery.com

A 38-year-old woman is found to have a 12-cm hepatic hemangioma. Which statement regarding management is true?

Correct Answer

d) If surgery is planned, peripherally located hemangiomas should be enucleated

Explanation

Hepatic hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of the liver and are usually detected incidentally. Management depends on symptoms, complications, and diagnostic certainty, not size alone.

  • Size and surgery:
    Lesion size alone, even when greater than 10 cm (giant hemangioma), is not an indication for surgery if the patient is asymptomatic.
  • Oral contraceptives and pregnancy:
    Although estrogen exposure may cause hemangioma enlargement, there is no strong evidence that oral contraceptive pills or pregnancy significantly increase the risk of rupture. Routine avoidance is not recommended.
  • Role of arterial embolization:
    Arterial embolization is not performed routinely. It is reserved for:
    • Symptomatic patients unfit for surgery
    • Acute bleeding
    • Preoperative reduction of tumor vascularity
  • Surgical technique:
    When surgery is indicated (symptoms, complications, or diagnostic uncertainty), enucleation is preferred for peripherally located hemangiomas because it:
    • Preserves maximum liver parenchyma
    • Results in less blood loss
    • Has lower morbidity compared to formal hepatic resection

Teaching Points

  • Hepatic hemangioma is the most common benign liver tumor
  • Size alone is not an indication for surgery
  • Most asymptomatic hemangiomas require only observation
  • Enucleation is preferred over resection when surgery is needed
  • Embolization is reserved for selected symptomatic or high-risk cases

Complications of Billroth II surgery

Billroth 1 and 2
Complications of Billroth II Surgery – Free MCQ | mcqsurgery.com

Complications of Billroth II – Free MCQ (GI Surgery)

High-yield stomach surgery question for NEET SS & GI Surgery preparation. Use the Answer Free button to reveal the explanation.

Q) What is true regarding complications of Billroth II surgery?

a) It has less complications than Billroth I surgery
b) Recurrent ulceration is more common in the afferent limb as compared to efferent limb.
c) Afferent loop obstruction is more common after Billroth II  surgery
d) Billroth I  operation is preferred in scarred duodenum

Answer c -

In Billroth II surgery, afferent limb obstruction is more common

In Billroth I reconstruction The remnant is anastomosed  to the duodenum

In Billroth II duodenum stump is closed and stomach is anastomosed to the jejunum limb

Advantages of Billroth I

  • More Physiological as normal GI continuity is maintained
  • No problem of afferent and efferent limb
  • Future procedures like endoscopy and ERCP can be done
  • Reduced chance of gastric carcinoma in remnant stomach as compared to Billroth 2  ( SKF page 682) 

In surgery for benign gastric ulcers, Billroth I reconstruction is the preferred choice.

Billroth II surgery has problems of

  • Retained antrum syndrome
  • Afferent loop obstruction
  • Duodenal stump leak (1-3%

Billroth 2 surgery is done when there is

1. Inadequate mobility of the duodenum

2. Scarring of duodenum

Complications of gastric surgery
Complications of gastrectomy

  • Nutritional and weight loss - Iron deficiency, Copper deficiency, Vit B12 , Anemia
  • Delayed gastric emptying
  • Roux statsis- Seen in roux en y loops-  Pain, nausea, vomiting, abdominal bloating
  • Cholelithiasis-  Higher incidence in roux en y reconstruction as compared to B1 and B 2 gastrectomy
  • Recurrent ulceration

Complications of Billroth 2 surgery

  • Dumping syndrome Dumping symptoms have been reported in up to 70% of Billroth II patients and up to 75% of patients after RYGBP for obesity.
  • Afferent loop obstruction - It can be minimized by keeping the length of afferent loop less than 20 cm and using a retrocloic approach.
  • Bile reflux gastritis - More common with billroth I and billroth 2 surgery, incidence is decreasing after the use roux en y anastomosis

Tags: Billroth I, Billroth II, Afferent loop obstruction, Stomach Surgery MCQ, NEET SS GI Surgery

Splenic artery aneurysm

Q) Splenic artery aneurysm is seen in  ( #spleen1)

a) Proximal 1/3rd of splenic artery

b) Proximal 2/3 of splenic artery

c) Middle 1/3 of splenic artery

d) Distal 1/3 of splenic artery

Mass forming lesion Liver

Q) A 55 year old male presents with obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound evaluation reveals a

hyperechoic 4 cm mass in segment VI of liver with peripheral duct dilatation.

CT abdomen shows a hypodense mass with delayed enhancement in portal pahse.

What is the most likely diagnosis

a) Hepatocellular carcinoma

b) Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

c) Metastatic Adenocarcinoma

d) Carcinoid 

b) Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (IHCC)

IHCC - Mass forming type- have gradual central enhancement and variable delayed enhancement on portal phase

Hepatocellular carcinoma present ....Premium content at Questions on Bile ducts Q16-20

Surgery Trauma MCQ

Q ) A 25 year old male brought to the hospital  after being involved in a road traffic accident that occurred 50 minutes ago. His  initial BP at the scene of accident was  80/40 mm HG with a pulse rate of 120/min.

The paramedics administered 2 litres of normal saline in the ambulance and in the emergency department his BP is 110/70 with a pulse rate of 90/min.

He has tenderness in Left upper quadrant abdomen and USG reveals perisplenic fluid. Next step is to :  (#See more trauma MCQS) 

a) Take him for exploratory laparotomy

b) Shift him to ICU and observe

c) Do a CT scan of the abdomen

d) Put in a laparoscope and assess

Answer c

This Patient has a splenic injury due to blunt trauma abdomen. The  immediate management  depends on grade of splenic  injury  and response to IV Fluids. This patient is hemodynamically stable after IV fluids  and immediate laparotomy is not needed.

Direct shifting to ICU is also not the right choice because CT is required first and for more severe injuries patient can go to OT

Laparoscopy has no role in splenic injuries

Hirchsprung’s disease

Hirschsprung’s Disease MCQ for NEET SS | mcqsurgery.com

Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding Hirschsprung’s disease?

Correct Answer

a) Male and female have equal incidence

Explanation

Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital disorder characterized by absence of ganglion cells in the distal bowel, leading to functional intestinal obstruction.

  • Sex distribution:
    Hirschsprung’s disease shows a clear male predominance. The male-to-female ratio is approximately 4:1 in short-segment disease. Therefore, equal incidence in males and females is false.
  • Extent of disease:
    Total colonic aganglionosis occurs in about 5–10% of patients, making option (b) true.
  • Postoperative outcome:
    Following pull-through surgery, bowel dysfunction is common. Constipation is the most frequent long-term problem, so option (c) is true.
  • Genetic associations:
    Hirschsprung’s disease is associated with chromosomal anomalies. Down syndrome is seen in approximately 2–10% of cases, making option (d) true.

Teaching Points

  • Hirschsprung’s disease has a strong male predominance
  • Total colonic aganglionosis occurs in about 5–10% of cases
  • Constipation is the most common long-term complication after surgery
  • Down syndrome is the most common genetic association
  • Enterocolitis is the most feared complication, especially in infants

HCC Cancer

Q) Which of the following is true about screening in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC Cancer) 

a) Alpha feto protein should be done 6 monthly

b) Ultrasound abdomen should be done 6 monthly

c) Candidates for liver transplant should be screened every 3 months

d) Nodules more than 2 cm should be followed up  more regularly

Answer b

Cirrhosis is prone for development of HCC. Screening has to be stringent.  Earlier ultrasound of liver and alpha feto protein were both used for screening

In 2009 Marrero et al demonstrated the suboptimal accuracy of AFP and after that it has been removed from the screening protocol and now only ultrasound is being done.

The screening recommendation is not for those patients with severe associated conditions and with advanced liver disease who are already considered for  transplant. So there is no screening for those who are already listed. Nodules more than 1 cm are highly suspicious where as in nodules less than 1 cm only 40% will be malignant.

Ref: blumgart 6th edition

 

 

Mass in Right lower quadrant

Q) A 55 year old lady presents with vague pain in right lower abdomen. Physical examination reveals a well defined mass there which is non tender and freely mobile. It is non pulsatile as well. What is the most likely possibility?

a) Appendicular mass

b) Mesenteric cyst

c) Perforated tubo ovarian mass

d) Meckel's diverticulum

Answer

b

Mesenteric cysts are uncommon lesions found in this age group. It typically presents as a freely mobile mass  which moves perpendicular to small blwel axis. It is painless as well.

Appendicular mass will have a preceding history of pain abdomen

Similarly perforated  tubo ovarian mass will also have a history of pain 

Meckel's diverticulum does not present as this kind of mass

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